<P> In Spain, Section 91 of the Constitution provides that the King shall give his assent to laws passed by the General Courts within 15 days after their final passing by them . The absence of the royal assent, although not constitutionally provided, would mean the bill did not become a part of the law . Section 90 of the Constitution states that "Within two months after receiving the text, the Senate may, by a message stating the reasons for it, adopt a veto or approve amendments thereto . The veto must be adopted by overall majority ." </P> <P> In the United Kingdom, the royal veto ("withholding Royal Assent") was last exercised in 1708 by Queen Anne with the Scottish Militia Bill 1708 . </P> <P> The House of Lords used to have an effective power of veto by refusing to concur in bills adopted by the House of Commons . However, reform first by a Liberal government and then by a Labour government has limited its powers . The Parliament Acts of 1911 and 1949 reduced its powers: they can now only amend and delay legislation . They can delay legislation for up to one year . Under the 1911 Act, money bills (those concerning finance) cannot be delayed, and under the Salisbury Convention, the Lords, by convention, cannot delay any bills set out in the governing party's manifesto . </P> <P> All legislation passed by both houses of Congress must be presented to the President . This presentation is in the President's capacity as Head of Government . </P>

What principle allows the supreme court to veto a bill if it is unconstitutional